"...the historic Biblical Christian faith recovered at the Reformation"
"...the proper historic orthodox and Biblical theology recovered during the Protestant Reformation"
"...the proper Biblical theology recovered at the Reformation"
"...the proper Biblical doctrine recovered at the Reformation"
The above four quotes are taking from the articles and missives of
Rev. Ken Silva of
Apprising Ministries. I could cite more examples of Ken's use of phrases similar to this, but I think it would be unneccessary. So why bring it up? My issue is this; Ken points to, as you can see above, the "historic orthodox Christian faith recoverd at the Reformation." Ken also frequently cites Jude 3; "Beloved, while I was making every effort to write you about our
common salvation, I felt the necessity to write to you appealing that you contend earnestly for
the faith which was
once for all handed down to the saints." Emphasis mine, because Ken often cites that specific portion of the verse.
I say all that to say this; if the faith was
once for all handed down to the saints, how was it "recovered at the reformation"? If it was recovered, that would indicate that it was lost at some point. But how could it be lost when the Scriptures state that it was handed down once for all?
Is there anybody out there?
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